2 problems

Let $f$ be a Lorenz map, and let $w=(w_0,w_1)$ be a renormalization type. A map is infinitely $w$-renormalizable when every successive renormalization is $w$-renormalizable. Denote…

Fix a topological class $\mathcal{T}$ of infinitely $(a,b)$-renormalizable Lorenz maps, with $a$ and $b$ sufficiently large. Let $\mathcal{U}\subset\mathcal{T}$ be the nonempty ope…