Erdős Problem #396 — Is it true that for every kk there exists nn such that ∏0≤i≤k(n−i)∣(2nn)?\prod_{0\leq i\leq k}(n-i) \mid \binom{2n}{n}?

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Is it true that for every kk there exists nn such that ∏0≤i≤k(n−i)∣(2nn)?\prod_{0\leq i\leq k}(n-i) \mid \binom{2n}{n}?

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